Gleisner, F Ibrahim and L Campbell); Mortimer Market Centre, Lo

Gleisner, F. Ibrahim and L. Campbell); Mortimer Market Centre, London (R. Gilson, N. Brima and I. Williams); North Middlesex University Hospital NHS Trust, London (A. Schwenk, J. Ainsworth, C. Wood and S. Miller); Royal Free NHS Trust and UCL Medical ITF2357 ic50 School, London (M. Johnson, M. Youle, F. Lampe, C. Smith, H. Grabowska, C. Chaloner and D. Puradiredja); St Mary’s Hospital, London (J. Walsh, J. Weber, F. Ramzan, N. Mackie and A. Winston); The Lothian University Hospitals NHS Trust, Edinburgh

(C. Leen and A. Wilson); North Bristol NHS Trust (M. Gompels and S. Allan); University of Leicester NHS Trust (A. Palfreeman and A. Moore); South Tees Hospitals NHS Foundation Trust (D. Chadwick and K. Wakeman). “
“Pregnancy may alter protein binding (PB) of highly bound protease inhibitors due to changes in plasma concentrations of albumin and α-1 acid glycoprotein (AAG). Small changes in PB can greatly impact the fraction of drug unbound (FU) exerting pharmacological effect. We report lopinavir (LPV) PB during third trimester (antepartum, AP) compared to ≥1.7 weeks postpartum (PP) to determine Tanespimycin if FU changes compensate for reduced total concentrations reported previously. P1026s enrolled women receiving LPV/ritonavir, soft gel capsules 400/100 mg or 533/133 mg twice daily. LPV FU, albumin and AAG were determined AP and PP. AP/PP

samples were available from 29/25 women respectively with all but one woman receiving the same dose AP/PP. LPV FU was increased 18% AP vs. PP (mean 0.96±0.16% AP vs. 0.82±0.21% PP, P=0.001). Mean protein concentrations were reduced AP (AAG=477 mg/L; albumin=3.28 mg/dL) vs. PP (AAG=1007 mg/L; albumin=3.85 mg/dL) Liothyronine Sodium (P<0.0001 for each comparison). AAG concentration correlated with LPV binding.

Total LPV concentration did not correlate with LPV FU AP or PP. However, higher LPV concentration PP was associated with reduced PB and higher FU after adjustment for AAG. LPV FU was higher and AAG lower AP vs. PP. The 18% increase in LPV FU AP is smaller than the reduction in total LPV concentration reported previously and is not of sufficient magnitude to eliminate the need for an increased dose during pregnancy. The current US Public Health Service (USPHS) Perinatal Guidelines recommend treatment with highly active antiretroviral (ARV) therapy (HAART) for most pregnant women for maternal control of HIV and prevention of mother-to-child transmission [1]. Lopinavir/ritonavir (LPV/r) is one of the most common boosted protease inhibitor (PI) combinations used by pregnant women in the United States and continues to be the first-line choice for PI therapy for HIV-1-infected pregnant women in many clinical centres. Optimum dosing of PI-based regimens during pregnancy can be complicated by substantial changes in the pharmacokinetics of ARVs, which can be more pronounced during the third trimester of pregnancy. Alterations of gastrointestinal function during pregnancy may impair drug absorption.

3 million Australian resident short-term departures in 2009,[14]

3 million Australian resident short-term departures in 2009,[14] it is important that Australians traveling to malaria-endemic areas are prescribed malaria chemoprophylaxis, where appropriate. The aim of this study was to investigate the trends in use of antimalarial drugs, particularly those prescribed

for malaria prophylaxis in Australia, from 2005 to 2009. In 2011, data were extracted from the Australian Statistics on Medicines reports published by the Pharmaceutical Benefits Advisory Committee, Drug Utilization Committee, on antimalarials used in Australia for the period 2005 to 2009.[15-19] During 2005 see more to 2009, 12 drugs/drug combinations could have potentially been prescribed for malaria. Six drugs (chloroquine, primaquine, mefloquine, proguanil, atovaquone/proguanil, and artemether/lumefantrine) were most likely, almost solely used as antimalarials. The remaining six drugs (hydroxychloroquine, quinine bisulfate, quinine sulfate, pyrimethamine, pyrimethamine/sulfadoxine, and doxycycline) had additional indications. The former

group of drugs would be expected to be an accurate indicator of trends in antimalarial use, while the latter group would be a less accurate indicator of trends as other uses potentially confound prescriptions for antimalarial use. Data were obtained on the number of prescriptions for each of these antimalarials. Trends in use were descriptively analyzed.

Isotretinoin Afatinib ic50 Among the drugs solely used as antimalarial drugs from 2005 to 2009, atovaquone plus proguanil and melfloquine are now the most commonly prescribed antimalarials (Table 1). Mefloquine prescriptions had increased by 38% from 2005 to 2008, but then dropped 17% from 2008 to 2009. The numbers of prescriptions for atovaquone plus proguanil have trebled (306%). Prescriptions for proguanil have dropped over 90% from 2005 to 2009. The diaminopyrimidines, pyrimethamine-containing antimalarials, have mostly been removed from the prescription drug list. Prescriptions for chloroquine have reduced by 66% from 2005 to 2008 and chloroquine was only available on special access from 2009. Artemether plus lumefantrine combination had been used in relatively small quantities and was available only on special authority from 2007 to 2009. Quinine prescriptions have also fallen by 60% from 2005 to 2009. Although a considerable quantity of doxycycline has been prescribed, it was unknown how much was intended for malaria chemoprophylaxis. Trends in the use of antimalarial drugs for treatment and chemoprophylaxis have been found to be greatly influenced by availability of antimalarials, prevailing guidelines, and other factors, in several countries;[12, 13, 20, 21] however, this study was not designed to investigate factors that might impact on these trends.

4 in 1975 to 32 in 2012 and the total morbidity increased from 2

4 in 1975 to 3.2 in 2012 and the total morbidity increased from 229 to 2092.[4] selleck kinase inhibitor The incidence of endometrial cancer is

likely to continue to increase based on these recent trends. Discovering the causes of the increase and establishment of prophylactic measures and new therapeutic strategies requires an improved understanding of the carcinogenic mechanisms of endometrial cancer. Environmental factors, including estrogen, an abnormal mismatch repair (MMR) system, genetic abnormalities, and aberrant methylation of DNA and microRNA, are currently proposed as major mechanisms of carcinogenesis in endometrial cancer. Endometrial cancer is defined as type I or II based on clinicopathological properties. Type I endometrial cancer more commonly develops in

premenopausal or perimenopausal women and occurs in an estrogen-dependent manner via atypical endometrial hyperplasia. The tumor is positive for the estrogen receptor and progesterone receptor, shows well-differentiated endometrioid adenocarcinoma, has a lower frequency of lymph node metastasis, shows little muscular invasion, and often has a relatively favorable prognosis. In contrast, type II endometrial cancer GDC-0199 in vivo tends to develop in postmenopausal women in an estrogen-independent manner, and is thought to be due to de novo carcinogenesis that develops directly from the normal endometrium, rather than via endometrial hyperplasia or undiagnosed precancerous lesions. The tissue type is specific, including extremely poorly differentiated endometrioid adenocarcinoma Succinyl-CoA and serous adenocarcinoma, and the prognosis is often poor. This review focuses on the mechanisms of carcinogenesis in endometrial cancer that have recently emerged. Estrogen is a steroid hormone that promotes the development of female

genitalia, including the endometrium, vagina, vulva and mammary gland. Estrogen passes through the cell membrane and binds to estrogen receptor (ER) in the cytoplasm. ER forms dimers and regulates gene expression via estrogen response elements in promoter regions of target genes. ER has ligand- and DNA-binding domains, and ligand-independent activation function (AF)-1 and ligand-dependent AF-2 transcriptional activation domains.[5] The balance of transcriptional activation domains varies among tissues, with dominance of AF-2 in mammary gland cells and AF-1 in endometrial cells.[6, 7] Miyamoto et al.[8] suggested that mismatch repair (MMR) deficiency was the most important abnormality in early-stage endometrial cancer, and examined the correlation between MMR and estrogen. Expression of hMLH1 and hMSH2, which are important MMR proteins, was examined by immunostaining and showed a strong positive correlation with blood estrogen. MMR activity in endometrial epithelial cells in vitro also showed a dose-dependent increase with higher estrogen levels.


“If novel health services are to be implemented and sustai


“If novel health services are to be implemented and sustained in practice, the perceptions and views of patients form a critical part of their evaluation. The aims of this study were to explore patient’s perceptions and experiences with a pharmacy asthma service and to investigate

if there was a change over time. Interviews and focus groups were conducted with patients participating in the asthma service at three time points. Data were transcribed verbatim and thematically analyzed using a framework approach. The service led to an enhanced awareness and understanding of asthma, changes in participants’ beliefs and attitudes towards asthma management, changes in asthma-related health behaviours see more and improved self-efficacy. Participants were very positive about the service and the role of the pharmacist in asthma management. There was a shift in participant perceptions and views, from being at an abstract level in those who had completed just one visit of the service to a more experiential level in those who had experienced the entire comprehensive asthma service. A sustained experience/multiple visits in a service may lead to more concrete changes in patient perceptions of severity, beliefs, health behaviours and

enhanced self-efficacy and control. The study highlights a need for such asthma services in the community. “
“Objective The objective is to evaluate the scope of medicines wastage in the phosphatase inhibitor library UK, assigning a value to the costs at both a national and individual patient level to assess the cost-effectiveness of the Carbachol pharmacy interventions that have been introduced to curb wastage. Methods Publicly available information was assessed in a desk-based

systematic review using online search engines and publication databases. Data on community prescribing trends and costs in England from 1997 to 2008 from the Department of Health, and published reports from Primary Care Trusts (PCTs) comprise the core information that has been analysed. Key findings The commonly used upper wastage estimate of 10% is likely to be overstated, because it pre-dates major measures to curb wastage and over-prescribing. In pilot programmes, medicines use reviews have achieved cost savings of up to 20%. Awareness campaigns aimed at patients appear to be effective. Twenty-eight-day repeat prescribing has resulted in year-on-year reductions on the quantity of medication issued per prescription item to reach an average prescription length of 40 days in 2008. The increasing availability of generic medications has seen significant reductions in net ingredient costs. Nearly two-thirds of prescriptions are now issued as generics, with an average net ingredient cost of £3.83. Pharmacy charges to dispense a prescription item in 2008 averaged £1.81, so that pharmacy charges make up around one-third of the cost of most prescription items dispensed. If all 842.

6% of cases, a figure that is consistent with estimates of 6 to 1

6% of cases, a figure that is consistent with estimates of 6 to 11% reported Ribociclib cell line in three previous studies from France, the United States, and Canada,5,20,22 but better than the 26 to 27% observed in two other studies from Canada3 and the United States21 (Table 2). We observed statistically significantly fewer incorrect uses of anti-malarials in the treatment

of patients with diagnosis of P falciparum infection (3.9%) than in the treatment of P vivax (29.1%), a data consistent with the results of the studies of Kain, Singh, and Ranque.3,5,21 However, in a study from the United States, incorrect use in anti-malarial therapy was much more frequent in the treatment of P falciparum infection.20 Inappropriate initial anti-malarial therapy is of great concern especially in the case of P falciparum malaria as this infection may run a life-threatening BMS354825 course. In our study, all the errors made in the treatment

of P falciparum infection should be considered serious errors as they regarded the selection of the wrong drug relative to the travel history (ie, chloroquine for patients coming from areas of chloroquine-resistance) or to the inappropriate consideration of the clinical presentation (ie, the use of mefloquine in patients with signs, or laboratory evidence of, severe malaria). In the three series reporting errors in anti-malarial therapy, we have calculated that serious treatment errors occurred, respectively, in Non-specific serine/threonine protein kinase 5.4%,21

17.2%,20 and 18%3 of P falciparum infections. Even though two studies have clearly demonstrated that receiving inappropriate initial anti-malarial treatment was significantly associated with treatment employed at community hospital3 or to the absence of infectious disease specialist consultation,21 our present experience highlights that these errors occur also in a highly specialized setting. Moreover, our study shows that although almost 76% (222/291) of patients received four appropriate regimens (ie, mefloquine, quinine, quinine + doxycycline, and chloroquine + primaquine) the remaining patients were treated with nine different regimens; however, similar results are observed reviewing the published papers on malaria in travelers when treatment is detailed.3,5,20–22 In our experience, this unacceptable high variability of the drug regimen chosen is probably the consequence of the high number of physicians in charge, together with the absence of in-house “user-friendly” treatment guidelines. In our study, mefloquine was the most frequently employed drug for the treatment of uncomplicated P falciparum malaria with an overall frequency of adverse effects documented in 19.5% of patients. Although our study was retrospective and not specifically addressed to evaluate tolerance, mefloquine was generally well-tolerated, with only one case of drug discontinuation. This is in contrast with the results of a French multicenter study showing a 4.

6% of cases, a figure that is consistent with estimates of 6 to 1

6% of cases, a figure that is consistent with estimates of 6 to 11% reported Gefitinib in three previous studies from France, the United States, and Canada,5,20,22 but better than the 26 to 27% observed in two other studies from Canada3 and the United States21 (Table 2). We observed statistically significantly fewer incorrect uses of anti-malarials in the treatment

of patients with diagnosis of P falciparum infection (3.9%) than in the treatment of P vivax (29.1%), a data consistent with the results of the studies of Kain, Singh, and Ranque.3,5,21 However, in a study from the United States, incorrect use in anti-malarial therapy was much more frequent in the treatment of P falciparum infection.20 Inappropriate initial anti-malarial therapy is of great concern especially in the case of P falciparum malaria as this infection may run a life-threatening Pictilisib mw course. In our study, all the errors made in the treatment

of P falciparum infection should be considered serious errors as they regarded the selection of the wrong drug relative to the travel history (ie, chloroquine for patients coming from areas of chloroquine-resistance) or to the inappropriate consideration of the clinical presentation (ie, the use of mefloquine in patients with signs, or laboratory evidence of, severe malaria). In the three series reporting errors in anti-malarial therapy, we have calculated that serious treatment errors occurred, respectively, in CYTH4 5.4%,21

17.2%,20 and 18%3 of P falciparum infections. Even though two studies have clearly demonstrated that receiving inappropriate initial anti-malarial treatment was significantly associated with treatment employed at community hospital3 or to the absence of infectious disease specialist consultation,21 our present experience highlights that these errors occur also in a highly specialized setting. Moreover, our study shows that although almost 76% (222/291) of patients received four appropriate regimens (ie, mefloquine, quinine, quinine + doxycycline, and chloroquine + primaquine) the remaining patients were treated with nine different regimens; however, similar results are observed reviewing the published papers on malaria in travelers when treatment is detailed.3,5,20–22 In our experience, this unacceptable high variability of the drug regimen chosen is probably the consequence of the high number of physicians in charge, together with the absence of in-house “user-friendly” treatment guidelines. In our study, mefloquine was the most frequently employed drug for the treatment of uncomplicated P falciparum malaria with an overall frequency of adverse effects documented in 19.5% of patients. Although our study was retrospective and not specifically addressed to evaluate tolerance, mefloquine was generally well-tolerated, with only one case of drug discontinuation. This is in contrast with the results of a French multicenter study showing a 4.

0 cm) have less than 1% risk of lymphatic spread, while patients

0 cm) have less than 1% risk of lymphatic spread, while patients with tumor diameter greater than 2.0 cm or with preoperative diagnosis of endometrioid grade 3 or non-endometrioid EC had a substantial risk of lymphatic involvement greater than 10% (Fig. 2).[14] Other authors have used preoperative imaging and serum markers, suggesting that tumor volume (measured with magnetic resonance imaging), positron emission tomographic scan find more findings,[28] and preoperative cancer antigen 125 or human epididymis protein 4 levels may be useful

in tailoring the indications for lymphadenectomy.[20, 21, 29] Our experience suggests that frozen-section analysis may represent a safe and effective method to direct the operative plan in selected medical centers. However, if frozen-section analysis is not available or if it is not reliable, findings of preoperative endometrial sampling associated with intraoperative tumor size, imaging studies and serum markers are alternative methods to identify patients who may benefit from comprehensive surgical staging.

Traditional imaging, node palpation through the peritoneum and node sampling are inaccurate in predicting lymph BGB324 clinical trial node positivity.[5] In 2005, ACOG recommended that ‘retroperitoneal lymph node assessment is a critical component of surgical staging’ because it ‘is prognostic and facilitates targeted therapy to maximize survival and to minimize Ergoloid the effect of undertreatment and potential morbidity associated with overtreatment’.[5] Nevertheless, in clinical practice a high variation of procedures reflects the lack of standardization of lymphadenectomy: techniques vary from elective omission to simple lymph node sampling, to systematic pelvic lymphadenectomy with or without para-aortic lymphadenectomy. One investigation at Mayo

Clinic illustrated the prevalence and site of pelvic and para-aortic lymphatic metastases. We reported that, among patients with lymphatic spread, 84% and 62% had pelvic and para-aortic node metastases, respectively. In particular, 46%, 38% and 16% had involvement of both pelvic and aortic nodes, pelvic nodes only and aortic nodes only, respectively.[8] Para-aortic lymph nodes can be classified based on their location above and below the inferior mesenteric artery (IMA). At Mayo Clinic, we evaluated para-aortic metastatic site frequency relative to the IMA and found that aortic nodes above the IMA were involved in 77% of cases.[8, 30] Fotopoulou and coworkers[31] corroborated these results; they reported that metastatic disease above the IMA was recorded in 54% and 70% patients with stage IIIC and IIIC2 EC, respectively. Recently, a prospective study by our department suggested that, considering patients with aortic node involvement, high para-aortic lymph node metastases were detected in 88% of them, with no discernible difference between endometrioid (89%) and non-endometrioid (88%) histological subtypes.


“It has been suggested for some time that circadian rhythm


“It has been suggested for some time that circadian rhythm abnormalities underlie the development of multiple psychiatric disorders. However, it is unclear how disruptions in individual circadian genes might regulate mood and anxiety. Here

we found that mice lacking functional mPeriod 1 (mPer1) or mPeriod 2 (mPer2) individually did not have consistent behavioral abnormalities in measures of anxiety-related behavior. However, mice deficient in both mPer1 and mPer2 had an increase in levels of anxiety-like behavior in multiple measures. Moreover, we found that mPer1 and mPer2 expression was reduced in the nucleus accumbens (NAc) after exposure to chronic social defeat stress, a paradigm that led to increased anxiety-related behavior. Following social defeat, chronic treatment with fluoxetine normalized Per gene expression towards wild-type levels. Knockdown of both mPer1 and mPer2 expression Kinase Inhibitor Library solubility dmso via RNA interference specifically in the NAc led to a similar increase in anxiety-like behavior as seen in the mutant animals. Taken together, these results implicate the Per genes in the NAc in response to stress and the

development of anxiety. “
“Environmental contexts associated with drug use promote craving in humans and drug-seeking Everolimus price in animals. We hypothesized that the basolateral amygdala (BLA) itself as well as serial connectivity between the BLA and nucleus accumbens core (NAC core) were required for context-induced renewal check of Pavlovian-conditioned alcohol-seeking. Male Long-Evans rats were trained to discriminate between two conditioned stimuli (CS): a CS+ that was paired with ethanol (EtOH, 20%, v/v) delivery into a fluid port (0.2 mL/CS+, 3.2 mL per session) and a CS− that was not. Entries into the port during each CS were measured. Next, rats received extinction in a different context where both cues were presented without EtOH. At test, responding to the CS+ and CS− without EtOH was evaluated in the prior training context. Control subjects showed a selective increase in CS+ responding relative to extinction, indicative of renewal. This effect was blocked by pre-test, bilateral inactivation of the BLA using

a solution of GABA receptor agonists (0.1 mm muscimol and 1.0 mm baclofen; M/B; 0.3 μL per side). Renewal was also attenuated following unilateral injections of M/B into the BLA, combined with either M/B, the dopamine D1 receptor antagonist SCH 23390 (0.6 μg per side) or saline infusion in the contralateral NAC core. Hence, unilateral BLA inactivation was sufficient to disrupt renewal, highlighting a critical role for functional activity in the BLA in enabling the reinstatement of alcohol-seeking driven by an alcohol context. “
“Department of Biology, Eastern Washington University, Cheney, WA, USA Department of Biomedical Sciences, Grand Valley State University, Allendale, MI, USA Methamphetamine (METH) is a highly addictive drug that is also neurotoxic to central dopamine (DA) systems.

The enhanced performance described above for EuCl-OFX was also ob

The enhanced performance described above for EuCl-OFX was also observed against P. aeruginosa FQ-R2 (data not shown), exhibiting a bactericidal effect at sub-MIC ofloxacin concentrations in the early hours of the experiment. Eradication was achieved with EuCl-OFX at 2048 μg mL−1 (8 × MIC ofloxacin for

P. aeruginosa FQ-R2) within the first hour of assay. After brief exposure to EuCl-OFX, the zeta potential of P. aeruginosa FQ-R1 was modified in value and sign (from −26.8 to 14.5 mV). The cationic nature of Eudragit is the key factor contributing to its interaction with the negatively charged microbial cell surface. The binding neutralizes see more and even reverse the surface charge of the bacteria. At this stage, the change is reversible. Cultures under the action of OFX showed no effect, in agreement with that previously reported for Escherichia coli with ciprofloxacin (Dealler, 1991). Most of the cells treated with EuCl-OFX for 3 h revealed alterations in their shape, cytoplasmic density and irregularities in bacterial cell wall which could affect the functionality of Selleckchem GS1101 the normal cell membrane (Fig. 2a). Although ofloxacin-treated cells showed slight changes in cytoplasmic electrodensity (*, Fig. 2b), the bacterial membranes were still unaltered and cell morphology was preserved. Untreated controls show normal appearance (Fig. 2d). Exposure of P. aeruginosa

FQ-R1 to EuCl-OFX before adding detergent or lysozyme resulted in lysis of 5.6 ± 6.8% of cells (data CYTH4 not shown). Similarly, treatment with polymyxin

B resulted in lysis of 8.5 ± 4.6% of cells. Bacteria culture was weakly sensitized by EuCl-OFX to Triton X-100 and lysozyme, but strongly sensitized to SDS (Table 2). Bacteria cell lysis by lytic agents following polymyxin treatment, a known OM-disorganizing agent, did not differ significantly. By contrast, cultures treated with ofloxacin did not differ with the control. DiBAC4 is fluorescent probe voltage sensitivity that enters depolarized cells (Müeller & Straüber, 2010), used to estimate damage of membrane potential in P. aeruginosa treated with EuCl-OFX. Figure 3 presents the effects of increasing concentrations of EuCl-OFX, drug-free polymer (EuCl) and free ofloxacin on the membrane potential for three isolates of P. aeruginosa. The negative controls showed the minimum relative fluorescence intensity (Fig. 3a, e and i). Accordingly, we considered the M1 range to be undamaged cells showing no significant depolarization of cytoplasmic membrane, and the M2 range to be damaged cells. The cell proportions exhibiting dye-associated fluorescence (M2) are expressed as percentages. The results indicate a rapid depolarization of cells treated with EuCl-OFX. After 1 h exposure, DiBAC4-associated fluorescence increases in intensity between 1 and 3 log orders, depending on the concentration and the strain analyzed.

Controls (planktonic growth) did not contain A castellanii Cult

Controls (planktonic growth) did not contain A. castellanii. Cultures were incubated at 30 °C (growth temperature of A. castellanii) for 30 min, and then gentamicin was added to wells containing A. castellanii

to 100 μg μL−1 to eliminate extracellular bacteria (Alsam et al., 2006). After 2 h, A. castellanii cultures were centrifuged at 100 g for 5 min and resuspended in 1 mL of PYG712 broth containing 25 μg μL−1 of gentamicin to prevent the growth of extracellular bacteria. After an additional 2 hours, cultures were centrifuged at 10 000 g click here for 30 s, pellets were resuspended in 1 mL of ice-cold RNA stop solution (19% ethanol, 0.1% sodium dodecyl sulfate (SDS), 1% acidic phenol) (Bernstein et al., 2002), and incubated on ice for 30 min. Following centrifugation at 10 000 g for 5 min at 0 °C, the RNA was immediately extracted from the pellets. For determination of survival of intracellular

E. coli O157:H7, cultures were generated in exactly the same way as cultures used for RNA extraction were GSK-3 activation generated. At the end of each time point, cultures were subjected to 0.1% SDS (final concentration) for 15 min to lyse A. castellanii and CFUs were determined. This level of SDS had no effect on the viability of E. coli O157:H7 grown planktonically (data not shown). RNA isolation, DNase treatment, subsequent purification, and determination of the absence of DNA was conducted as described previously (Carruthers & Minion, 2009). Samples were purified and concentrated using Millipore Microcon tuclazepam YM-30 columns. RNA integrity and purity (absence of eukaryotic ribosomal peaks) were determined using the 2100 Bioanalyzer (Agilent Technologies, Santa Clara, CA), with all samples measured having an Agilent RNA integrity number of 9.0 or higher and were void of detectable eukaryotic rRNA peaks (data not shown). Samples were determined to be free of contaminating genomic DNA by the absence of a product after 30 rounds of PCR. The microarray used for these studies has been described (Carruthers & Minion, 2009). It is based on PCR products representing 4756

genes printed to Corning UltraGAPS substrates. Target generation, labeling, reaction clean-up, hybridization, and pre- and posthybridization washes were all conducted as described previously using Cy3 and Cy5 dyes (Oneal et al., 2008; Carruthers & Minion, 2009). Scanning, image segmentation, and normalization were conducted as described previously (Oneal et al., 2008). Cluster of orthologous groups of proteins (COGs) information was obtained from NCBI (http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov). Eighteen RNA samples, half from cells within A. castellanii and half from planktonic control cells, were used for the microarray study. A sample from each treatment was randomly paired with a sample from another treatment for hybridization on a two-color microarray substrate for a total of nine hybridizations.